Let $p_i$ be the $i$th prime number, and $\Omega(n) =$ the total number of prime factors of $n$ counting multiplicities. We know that $\Omega(n)$ is completely additive, so:
$$ \frac{\Omega(n!)}{n} = \sum_{i = 1}^n \Omega(i) = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 1}^{\pi(n)}\sum_{j = 1}^{\log_{p_k}(n)}\left\lfloor\frac{n}{p_k^j} \right\rfloor = \\ \ \\ \frac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 1}^{\pi(n)}\sum_{j = 1}^{\log_{p_k}(n)}\frac{n - (n \mod p_k^j)}{p_i^j} = \\ \ \\ \sum_{k = 1}^{\pi(n)}\sum_{j = 1}^{\log_{p_k}(n)}\left(\frac{1}{p_k^j} -\frac{(n \mod p_k^j)}{p_k^jn} \right) $$
I'm thinking since the (infinite) sum contains $\frac{1}{p_i}, i=1..\infty$. It makes me think it probably diverges. However, when computing it it seems to be approaching the line $y = 4$ as in $\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\Omega(n!)}{n} = 4$; either that or it's actually going up very slowly (logarithmically), which still means it diverges. Just would have to plug in a googleplex to get it past $y = 4$.
Here is some code to experiment with:
from sympy import *
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
def f(n):
S = 0
for i in range(1, n+1):
S += primeomega(i)
return S
k = 1
N = 6000000
X = []
Y = []
stride = 1
for n in range(1000000, N, stride):
F = float(f(n) / n)
print(n, F)
X.append(n)
Y.append(F)
plt.plot(X, Y)
plt.show()
So what does this relative growth of $\Omega(n!)$ look like? Any way using analytic number theory to take its density limit?
Your limit is infinity.
Let $\omega(n)$ be the number of distinct prime factors of $n$. We have $\omega(n)\leq \Omega(n)$.
Since $\Omega$ is completely additive, $\Omega(n!)=\sum_{k\leq n}\Omega(k)$.
This gives $\Omega(n!)\geq \sum_{k\leq n} \omega(k)$.
A standard method switching order of summation applies, $$\begin{align} \sum_{k\leq n}\omega(k)&=\sum_{k\leq n}\sum_{p|k}1\\ &=\sum_{p\leq n}\sum_{k\leq n/p}1\\ &=\sum_{p\leq n}\left(\frac np + O(1)\right)\\ &=n\log\log n +O(n)+O(\pi(n)) \end{align} $$ where $\log$ is the natural log and $\pi(n)$ is the number of primes up to $n$.
Then $$ \frac{\Omega(n!)}n\geq \log\log n +O(1)+ O(\frac{\pi(n)}n). $$ By $\pi(n)=O(n/\log n)$, we obtain $$ \frac{\Omega(n!)}n\geq \log\log n + O(1)+ O(\frac1{\log n}). $$ The right side diverges to infinity.