Suppose the inequality $\frac {1}{2}-\frac{x^2}{24}<\frac{1-\cos(x)}{x^2}<\frac {1}{2}$ then $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{1-\cos(x)}{x^2}$ is? I already solved this question by taking limit on the inequalities the answer is $\frac{1}{2}<\lim_{x\to0}\frac{1-\cos(x)}{x^2}<\frac{1}{2}$ but I have a small doubt, as we know if $a<f(x)<a \implies f(x)=\phi$ so the solution is $1/2$ or doesn't exist?
2026-05-05 11:42:21.1777981341
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What is the limit of the given inequality
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Recall that by squeeze theorem from
$$\frac {1}{2}-\frac{x^2}{24}<\frac{1-\cos(x)}{x^2}<\frac {1}{2}$$
since
$$\frac{1}{2}-\frac{x^2}{24}\to \frac12$$
we can conclude that
$$\frac{1-\cos(x)}{x^2}\to \frac12$$
For all $x\ne 0$,
$$\left(\frac12-\frac{x^2}{24},\frac12\right)\ne \emptyset$$ and $\dfrac12$ is an accumulation point.
Limits are always computed in neighborhoods, not on the point itself.
You may reassure yourself by writing
$$\frac12-\frac{x^2}{24}\le f(x)\le\frac12$$ so that the intervals are closed, but the conclusion remains the same.