The question is: Given $$Z=\dfrac{4-z}{4+z},$$ if $|z|=4$, then find the locus of $Z$.
The solution in the textbook is:
$$Z=\dfrac{4-z}{4+z}\iff z=\dfrac{4(1-Z)}{1+Z},$$ so, $|z|=\left|\frac{4(1-Z)}{1+Z}\right|$ by taking the modulus on both sides. Then, $1=\left|\frac{1-Z}{1+Z}\right|$ since $|z|=4$. Now, $|Z+1|=|Z-1|$ implies that the locus of $Z$ is the perpendicular bisector of the join of $1$ and $-1$, which is simply the $y$-axis.
My question:
Isn't taking the modulus on both sides a forwards implication only? I would assume that we would need a double implication to show that $|Z+1|=|Z-1|$ is equivalent to our original locus to ensure that taking the modulus hasn't lost/added information. Suppose we have $z=1+i$, then wouldn't $|z|=|1+i|$ be completely different?
Note: I understand that there are other ways of doing it, such as letting $z=x+iy$ and $x^2+y^2=16$. I just wanted to know why the textbook's method is valid or seems to get the same answer.
You are right in saying that, as in your example, that $|z|=|1+i|$ does not imply that $z=1+i$. But in this question, it is a condition on $Z$ that $|z|=4$ so only the "forwards implication" is required.
So $$|z|=4\implies\left|\frac{4(1-Z)}{1+Z}\right|=4$$