In the statement $\forall x:X \bullet p(x) \Rightarrow q(x)$, does the universal quantifier apply over the predicate q?
i.e. it is equivalent to $$\forall x:X \bullet (p(x) \Rightarrow q(x))$$ or does the implication take precedence, i.e. $$(\forall x:X \bullet p(x)) \Rightarrow q(x)$$
The non-standard notation used is to be deprecated, exactly because it isn't clear how to scope it.
Suppressing for a moment the restriction on the quantifier, we need to distinguish in standard notation:
and
The usual convention for dropping outermost brackets would mean that
is allowed slang for the second wff.
Now, there is an alternative old-school system [old-school in standard first-order logic texts, at any rate] for replacing parentheses with dots (as required to fix scope), where we would write instead
and (again, but now not slang)
But it is bad practice to mix dots and brackets (two different scoping systems), and we shouldn't write your first formula -- dots and brackets -- nor the second.
For restricted quantifiers - with $X$ giving the restricted domain - we could in some syntaxes replace $\forall x$ with $(\forall x \in X)$ [or perhaps $(\forall x \colon X)$] thus:
vs [dropping outer brackets]
A lot of work went into perfecting standard notation from Peano and Russell, through to Hilbert, Church and others: there are good reasons not to deviate!