Definitionally, a generalized eigenvector for matrix $A$ is a vector $\textbf{x}$ such that
\begin{align} (A - \lambda I)\textbf{x} \neq \textbf{0} \\ (A - \lambda I)^m\textbf{x} = \textbf{0} \end{align}
where $\lambda$ is some eigenvalue of $A$, and $m$ is some integer greater than one.
However, when I search for resources on calculating $\textbf{x}$ in textbooks and online, I always find this:
\begin{align} (A - \lambda I)\textbf{x} = \textbf{v} \end{align}
where, I believe, $\textbf{v}$ is a (possibly generalized) eigenvector for $m-1$.
My question is: what is the proof for this equation? I can only assume that I'm missing some painfully obvious algebra trick that would show its validity, but I have been unable to figure it out.
Hint:
Observe that if $(A-\lambda1\!\!1)\mathbf v=\mathbf 0$ and $(A-\lambda1\!\!1)\mathbf x=\mathbf v$ then \begin{eqnarray*} (A-\lambda 1\!\!1)^2\mathbf x&=&(A-\lambda 1\!\!1)(A-\lambda1\!\!1)\mathbf x,\\ &=&(A-\lambda1\!\!1)\mathbf v,\\ &=&\mathbf 0. \end{eqnarray*}.