In my textbook they give this series of steps:
$${d\over dx}(u(x)v(x))=u'(x)v(x)+u(x)v'(x)$$
Then integrating both sides:
$$u(x)v(x)=\int(u'(x)v(x)+u(x)v'(x))dx$$
Then the textbook rearranges the expression, and it only uses the rearranged version throughout the rest of the book (well, at least throughout the rest of the section).
$$\int u(x)v'(x)dx=u(x)v(x)-\int v(x)u'(x)dx$$
It doesn't explain in the book why this is the preferred version. So my question is: Why is it better?
I looked around online and I couldn't find an explanation, perhaps it isn't anywhere because it's a ridiculous question.
It is convenient to use the rearranged form in order to integrate some functions. For example, suppose we are trying to find the antiderivative of $xe^x$. This means we are trying to find $\int xe^x dx$. So, if we take $u=x$ and $v'(x)=e^x$, we get $u'(x)=1$ and $v(x)=e^x$ (ignoring the $+C$ for now), and so:
$\int xe^xdx=xe^x-\int 1\cdot e^xdx=xe^x-\int e^xdx=xe^x-e^x+C$.