I was reading the article in Wikipedia about Apery Constant and I saw the triple integral
$$\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{1-xyz}dx~dy~dz$$
By curiosity I removed the z variable and the third integral leaving only the double integral
$$\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{1-xy}dx~dy$$
calculated it with Desmos and got the result of $$\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}$$
I then tried with one integral but unfortunately that was undefined
I throw even more curiosity and wanted to know what will happen with 4 integrals and I got the value $$\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{1}{1-xyzw}dx~dy~dz~dw=\zeta(4) = \frac{\pi^{4}}{90}$$
So far I have reached till $\zeta(4)$ does this pattern continue and what is the thing that makes this true?
Yes the pattern exists. Indeed,
\begin{align} \int_{[0,1]^n} \frac1{1 - \prod_{\ell=1}^n x_\ell}\mathrm dx_1\ldots\mathrm dx_n &= \sum_{k=0}^\infty \int_{[0,1]^{n}} \left(\prod_{\ell=1}^n x_\ell\right)^k\mathrm dx_1\ldots\mathrm dx_n\\ &= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \left(\int_0^1 x^k\mathrm d x\right)^n\\ &= \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac1{(k+1)^n} = \zeta(n) \end{align}