If you can look at example 1.5 here, it is shown that $F_0= F(\{0\})$.
I was wondering if anyone here can explain in some more detail the example given.
I am confused by how we know that there is some $b \in F(\{0\})$ such that $a\sim b$? How does it follow that $F_0 \subseteq F(\{0\})$ and why do we have $a = b$? How do we get $F(\{0\})\subseteq F_0$?
$\newcommand{\F}{\mathscr F} \newcommand{\dirlim}[1]{\varinjlim\limits_{#1}} $ Consider the stalk of $\F$ at point $x$ :
$$\F_x := \dirlim{ \substack{U \ni x \\ U \subset X \text{ open}}} \F(U) \quad=\quad \dfrac{ \bigsqcup\limits_{\substack{U \ni x \\ U \subset X \text{ open}}} \F(U) }{ \sim }$$
In our case, we have $$\F_0 = \dfrac{\F(\{0\}) \sqcup \F(X)}{ \sim }$$ where $X = \{0,1\}$ has the discrete topology. Here is how the equivalence relation $\sim$ works. Basically, we identify sections (i.e. elements of $\F(U)$ for some open $U \subset X$) whenever they coincide on some open neighborhood of $x$ (contained in the intersection of their domains of definition).
If $a, b \in \F(\{0\})$, then $a \sim b$ iff $a=b$ (iff $a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }$).
If $a, b \in \F(X)$, then $a \sim b$ iff [$a=b$ or $a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }$]
If $a \in \F(\{0\}), b \in \F(X)$, then $a \sim b$ iff $a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }$
If $b \in \F(\{0\}), a \in \F(X)$, then $a \sim b$ iff $a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }$.
You notice that in all the cases, expect the second case, the sections are identified if and only if their restrictions to the open set $\{0\}$ are equal. This leads to the following guess : $\F_0 \cong \F( \{0\} )$ as commutative rings.
1)
We still need to study the second case, namely when we have a global section $a \in \F(X)$. Notice that $a \sim a \vert_{ \{0\} }$ (this is the section $b$ you were looking for : just take $b=a \vert_{ \{0\} }$ — notice that we only have $a \sim b$, not $a=b$). Indeed, we always have $s:=a\vert_U \sim t:=a\vert_V$ for any open $U, V \subset X$, since $s\vert_{U \cap V} = a\vert_{U \cap V} = t\vert_{U \cap V}$. Therefore, the equivalence class of $a$ equals the equivalence class of $a\vert_{ \{0\} }$ in the stalk $\F_0$.
2)
As for the claim "$\F_0 \subset \F(\{0\})$", we construct a ring morphism
$$f : \F_0 \to \F(\{0\}), \quad [s]_{\sim} \mapsto s\vert_{ \{0\} }.$$
It is well-defined because, from the 4 cases above, we have $$a \sim b \implies a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }.$$ (Notice that, in the second case, $a=b \in \F(X)$ always implies $a\vert_{ \{0\} } = b\vert_{ \{0\} }$).
It is also injective. It is clear that if $f(s) = f(t)$ for some $s, t \in \F(\{0\})$, then $s=t$ (because $s=s\vert_{ \{0\} }$ in that case), so that $[s]_{\sim}=[t]_{\sim}$. When $s, t \in \F(X)$ are such that $f(s)=f(t)$, then we we have $$s \sim s\vert_{ \{0\} } = t\vert_{ \{0\} } \sim t$$ so that we again find $[s]_{\sim}=[t]_{\sim}$.
Thus, we can identify $\F_0$ with a subring of $\F( \{0\} )$, since $f$ is an injective ring morphism.
Finally, $f$ is also surjective : if $t \in \F( \{0\} )$, then $[t]_{\sim}$ is an element of $\F_0$ which is mapped to $t$ under $f$.
Personally, I would have rather worked with the ring morphism $$g : \F(\{0\}) \to \F_0, \quad s \mapsto [s]_{\sim}$$ You can try to show that this is an isomorphism, whose inverse if the morphism $f$ from above.
More generally, you can think of an element of the stalk $\F_x$ as a "germ" $[(U, s)]_{\sim}$ where $s \in \F(U)$ and $U \subset X$ is an open neighboorhood of $x$.