In the induction step, we (usually) want to prove that
$$\forall n\in \mathbb{N}, P(n) \implies P(n+1)$$
so we assume $P(n)$ for "some" natural $n$, and show that it implies $P(n+1)$.
My question of this: what sort of quantifier are we applying to $n$ when we say, "For some $n$"?
Initially, It seems like it is just the existential quantifier, since $\exists$ is often translated to "for some."
But this doesn't seem to make much sense in the context of an induction hypothesis, because the "some" $n$ for which $P(n)$ is true could very well not include the base case.
It also couldn't be that "some" here means "for all," since that begs the question.
Instead of just "some," I have also seen the word "arbitrary" used, as in "Assume $P(n)$ for some arbitrary $n$," and this seems to make more sense to me. It feels like we are not taking any particular $n$, nor every $n$, but just something that represents $n$ in an abstract way and using that to prove the implication.
But I would be interested to hear a proper explanation of this.
This is correct. (But $(1)$ below is clearer.)
I've seen authors write this too; here's an excerpt (emphasis mine):
So, this mistake isn't uncommon, and yes, it is a mistake: what we are supposing, rather, is that $P(k)$ is true for an arbitrary natural number $k,$ so that we can conclude (implicitly invoking Universal Introduction) at the end of this section that $$\forall k{\in} \mathbb{N}\; \Big(P(k) \implies P(k+1)\Big).\tag1$$
Yes indeed. However, to more clearly distinguish this from existential quantification, I'd write "for an arbitrary $n$" instead of "for some arbitrary $n$".