I am not sure if this is a straightforward question, since I am not familiar with complex analysis.
$i^e = e^{(i*π/2)*e} = (e^{iπ})^{e/2} = (-1)^{e/2}$
I think that's somewhat right, but when I put this into a calculator an imaginary part also comes out.
Is this because of $e$?
$i^e = e^{(i*π/2)*e} = (e^{iπ})^{e/2} = (-1)^{e/2}$
You still have $(-1)$ to a power of a multiple of $\frac 12$ and that will create an imaginary part.
$(e^{i\frac {eπ}{2}}) = \cos \frac {eπ}{2} + i\sin \frac {eπ}{2}$