In conformal field theory in 2d, one introduced $\omega$ to $\mathbb{C} \cup \{\omega\}$ to corporate for the poles.
However, would there be any difference between $\omega$ and $i\omega$? Why did one not consider $i\omega$ being in the set as well?
In conformal field theory in 2d, one introduced $\omega$ to $\mathbb{C} \cup \{\omega\}$ to corporate for the poles.
However, would there be any difference between $\omega$ and $i\omega$? Why did one not consider $i\omega$ being in the set as well?
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