Original question (with confused terms):
Wikipedia and Wolfram Math World claim that the kurtosis of exponential distribution is equal to $6$. Whenever I calculate the kurtosis in math software (or manually) I get $9$, so I am slightly confused.
I calculate 4th central moment as:
$$ D^4X = \int_0^\infty (x-\lambda^{-1})^4 \lambda e^{-\lambda x} \, dx\,. $$
And kurtosis as:
$$ K = \frac{D^4X}{(D^2X)^2} $$
Is the approach and result correct (kurtosis equal to $9$)? I trust that the calculation of this very specific integral I shown is correct.
Comment:
I didn't know 'kurtosis' and 'excess kurtosis' are different terms. Thank you all for your help.
Often "kurtosis" is taken to mean "excess kurtosis", i.e. the amount by which the kurtosis exceeds that of the normal distribution, thus the kurtosis minus $3.$
Subtraction of $3$ makes sense in some contexts even without thinking about the normal distribution. Let $\mu=\operatorname{E}(X)$ and note that the two functionals $$ \operatorname{A}(X) = \operatorname{E}\big((X-\mu)^4\big) \quad \text{and} \quad \operatorname{B}(X) = \Big(\operatorname{E}\big((X-\mu)^2\big) \Big)^2 $$ are $(1)$ homogenous of degree $4$ (i.e. multiplying $X$ by a scalar $c$ multiplies the value of the functional by $c^4,$ and $(2)$ translation-invariant. But they are not "cumulative", i.e. for independent random variables $X_1,\ldots,X_n$ we do not have $\operatorname{A}(X_1+\cdots+X_n) = \operatorname{A}(X_1)+\cdots+\operatorname{A}(X_n)$ nor $\operatorname{B}(X_1+\cdots+X_n) = \operatorname{B}(X_1)+\cdots+\operatorname{B}(X_n).$ But $\kappa = {\operatorname{A}}-{3\operatorname{B}}$ is homogenous of degree $4$ and translation invariant and cumulative. And for any coefficient besides $-3$ that doesn't work. This quantity $\kappa(X)$ is the fourth cumulant of the distribution of $X.$ The excess kurtosis is $$ \frac{\kappa(X)}{\sigma^4}. $$