I wish to find $\displaystyle \sup(A)$ for $\displaystyle A = \left\{(-1)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\right): n \in \mathbb{N}\right\}$.
Definition: $u$ is the supremum of $A$ if for any $\epsilon >0$ we have $x \in A$ implies $x+\epsilon > u$.
First we find an upper bound: by triangle inequality $\displaystyle (-1)^n \left(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\right) \le 1+\frac{1}{n^2} \to 1. $
So $1$ is an upper bound. We'll prove that it's the least upper bound by contradiction. Suppose for every $\epsilon >0$ we have $x \in A$ implies $x+\epsilon \le 1$. That's, we have $\epsilon \le 1-x$ . But $x$, being in A which is bounded by $1$, is less than or equal to $1$. So $\epsilon \le 1-x \le 0$. Hence $\epsilon \le 0$, contradicting that $\epsilon >0$.
Is this right? I'm not terribly confident because I wasn't able to fix an epsilon. Thanks in advance.
You don't have to “fix an epsilon”.
First you make the conjecture that $1$ is the supremum. It clearly is an upper bound, because $1>(-1)^n(1-1/n^2)$.
In order to show it is the least upper bound, take $\varepsilon>0$. You need to find $n=2k$ (why does it suffice to be even?) such that $$ 1-\frac{1}{4k^2}>1-\varepsilon $$ If $\varepsilon\ge1$ there is no problem, as any $k$ is good. Suppose $0<\varepsilon<1$. Then the inequality becomes $$ k>\frac{1}{2\sqrt{\varepsilon}} $$ and surely such a $k$ exists.
Therefore, for every $\varepsilon>0$, there exists $n$ such that $$ (-1)^n\left(1-\frac{1}{n^2}\right)>1-\varepsilon $$ and we're done.