Write $$\phi_n\stackrel{(1)}{=}n+\cfrac{n}{n+\cfrac{n}{\ddots}}$$ so that $\phi_n=n+\frac{n}{\phi_n},$ which gives $\phi_n=\frac{n\pm\sqrt{n^2+4n}}{2}.$ We know $\phi_1=\phi$, the Golden Ratio, so let's take $\phi_n\stackrel{(2)}{=}\frac{n+\sqrt{n(n+4)}}{2}$. (Is that justified?)
Wolfram Alpha states that, with $(2)$, $$\lim\limits_{n\to -\infty}\phi_n=-1.$$ Why? Can I infer that this is true for $(1)$ and, if so, why?
I wonder what happens in $(1)$ for $n\in\mathbb{C}\backslash\mathbb{Z}$ too. I got something horrendous looking in $(2)$ for $n=i$.
Clarification: I'm trying to find $\phi_n$ in terms of $n$. See the comments below.
If $f_n(x) = n+n/x$, I'm not sure about your notation, but I think $(1)$ defines $\phi_n$ as the limit (provided it exists) of $f_n \circ f_n \circ \ldots \circ f_n (n)$.
Such a limit would be a fixpoint of $f_n$, which means one of the two complex numbers $y_n,z_n = \frac {n \pm \sqrt {n(n+4)}}2$.
To guess which one it is, we should wonder which one is the attractive fixpoint ,and which one is repulsive. $f_n'(x) = -n/x^2 = y_nz_n/x^2$, and so $|f'_n(y_n)| = |z_n/y_n| = 1/|f'_n(z_n)|$. To be attractive, the derivative at that point has to be small ($< 1$ in modulus), hence the solution with the bigger modulus will be attractive, and that's the one the sequence will converge to (unless the sequence accidentally ends up exactly on the smaller fixpoint).
One can check that the two fixpoints have the same modulus when $n \in [-4;0]$, so we can't really define what's $\phi_n$ for those values of $n$. Just look at the sequence for such an $n$, you will see it has chaotic behaviour. On the rest of the complex plane, by picking the bigger fixpoint you obtain a continuous function $n \mapsto \phi_n$ defined on $\Bbb C \setminus [-4;0]$.
So $(2)$ is only correct for $n>0$, and you have to switch the sign of the square root for $n < -4$