Show that if $H$ is a subgroup of $(\mathbb Z,+)$ then $\exists n\in\mathbb N$ such that $H=n\mathbb Z$.
And here's what I did:
Suppose that H is a subgroup of Z and $\forall n\in\mathbb N$, $H \neq n\mathbb Z$.
then $\forall n\in\mathbb N$ ($\exists x \in H$ and x $\notin n \mathbb Z $) or ($\exists x \in n\mathbb Z$ and x $\notin H $)
suppose $\forall n\in\mathbb N$ ($\exists x \in H$ and x $\notin n \mathbb Z $)
for n=|x|we have x $\in H$ and x $\in |x|\mathbb Z$ which is absurd.
suppose $\forall n\in\mathbb N$ ($\exists x \in n\mathbb Z$ and x $\notin H $)
since x $\in \cap n \mathbb Z$ then x=0 which is $\in$H and this is absurd.
When I showed this proof to my recitation teacher, he said that the proof is wrong, but he couldn't find why.
The main problem with your proof is the following. When you say that if $H\neq n\mathbb{Z}$ then $\exists x\in n\mathbb{Z}:x_n\not\in H$ you can't get that conclussion. What you can say is that $\exists x_n\in n\mathbb{Z}:x_n\not\in H.$ And now you can't use that $\cap n\mathbb{Z}=\emptyset$ because it is possible that $x_n\ne x_m.$