What's wrong with this demonstration?:
$$A \iff 1 = 1^1$$ $$A \implies 1 = 1^\frac{2}{2}$$ $$A \implies 1 = (1^2)^\frac{1}{2}$$ $$A \implies 1 = ((-1)^2)^\frac{1}{2}$$ $$A \implies 1 = (-1)^\frac{2}{2}$$ $$A \implies 1 = (-1)^1 = -1$$
So finaly we get $$1 = -1$$
The property $\forall p\in \mathbb Z\forall q\in \mathbb N\left(a^{p/q}=(a^p)^{1/q}\right)$ doesn't work for negative $a$.
Howevever $\forall p\in \mathbb Z\forall q\in \mathbb N\left(q\text{ is odd}\implies a^{p/q}=(a^p)^{1/q}=(a^{1/q})^p\right)$ is true for all $a\in \mathbb Z\setminus \{0\}$.