What's wrong with this solution to this improper integral?

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What's wrong with my solution to the integral, we need to find for which values of $a$ the integral converges $$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{6x}\right)}{x^{\left(1-a\right)}\left(\ln\left(3+x^{4}\right)\right)^{2}}dx $$ I separated the calculation in $$ \int_{0}^{5}\frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{6x}\right)}{x^{\left(1-a\right)}\left(\ln\left(3+x^{4}\right)\right)^{2}}dx\ +\ \int_{5}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{6x}\right)}{x^{\left(1-a\right)}\left(\ln\left(3+x^{4}\right)\right)^{2}}dx $$ The first integral is asymptotically equal to $$ \frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{6x}\right)}{x^{\left(1-a\right)}\left(\ln\left(3+x^{4}\right)\right)^{2}}\sim_{x\to0^+}\frac{\sqrt{6x}}{x^{1-a}(x^4+2)^2}\sim_{x\to0^+} \frac{\sqrt{6x}}{x^{1-a}(1+2(x^4+1))}=\frac{\sqrt{6x}}{x^{1-a}(2x^4+3)} $$ And at this point i get stuck because i can't get to a form like $\frac{1}{x^k}$
The second integral should be: $$ \frac{\arctan\left(\sqrt{6x}\right)}{x^{\left(1-a\right)}\left(\ln\left(3+x^{4}\right)\right)^{2}}\sim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\frac \pi2}{x^{1-a}(\ln(x^4))^2}=\frac\pi{32}\cdot\frac1{x^{1-a}\ln^2 x} $$ Which converges for $a\leq0$

I am still really not sure of anything i did, so i'm sorry if there are dumb steps