If $u=u(x(t),t)$ is it the case that
$\displaystyle \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(x(t),t)=g(t)$, i.e purely a function of $t$?
I don't think it is but my notes say otherwise
If $u=u(x(t),t)$ is it the case that
$\displaystyle \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}(x(t),t)=g(t)$, i.e purely a function of $t$?
I don't think it is but my notes say otherwise
We see here a very common, but unfortunate notational sloppyness: The letter $x$ is used for two different things, namely
When one writes ${\partial u\over\partial x}$ one actually has "the partial derivative of $u$ with respect to its first variable", whatever its name, in mind. Therefore I'd rather write $(x,t)\mapsto u_{.1}(x,t)$ for this derivative, if the letter $x$ is used at the same time for other purposes. (Instead of $u_{.1}$ one could also write $\partial_1 u$ or similar.) After we have computed this $u_{.1}(\cdot,\cdot)$ we can plug in the given functions $t\mapsto x(t)$ and $t\mapsto t$ at the places of the cdots and so obtain the pullback $$g(t):=u_{.1}\bigl(x(t),t\bigr)\ ,$$ which is a function of the single real variable $t$.