I am a bit unsure about how the supremum/infimum of a set is obtained, in particular in the following simple toy example.
Let $f\colon \mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be the identity function, i.e. $f(x)=x$ for all $x$.
Now I am interested in $a:=\inf\{x \colon f(x) > 0 \}$ and $b:=\inf\{x > 0 \colon f(x) > 0\}$.
I wonder whether $a=b$ and whether $a$ or $b$ are equal to 0.
We had in a lecture about probability theory the following examples:
In one example we considered for the distribution function $F$ and a $x \in [0,1]$ the quantity
$\sup\{y \in \mathbb{R} \colon F(y) < x\}$.
The picture drawn corresponding to this example suggests that when the function is continuous at the point $y^*$ such that $F(y^*)=x$ and $y^*$ is the smallest value mapped to $x$, then the supremum is $y^*$, even though $y^*$ does not satisfy the property that $F(y^*) < x$.
In some other example we had $\sup A_n = \emptyset$ with $A_n:=(0,1/n)$.
Now I wonder why it is not the case that $\sup A_n = 0$, as in the above example we also picked a number not part of the set, and here $0$ is not part of the set as well, but would satisfy the other property of being $<1/n$ for all $n$.
An example; On the real line open sets do not contain thier supremum.
If a set is open then you can always find smaller numbers then a given number you might claim being your sup and still stay outside the set. In a closed set the boundary possess a property that makes this impossible since any ball around a point on the boundary intersect both the set and the complement.