Suppose that $|A|+|C|=|B|+|C|$, and that both sides are strictly larger than $|C|$. Does this imply $|A|=|B|$ in the absence of the axiom of choice?
With choice, cardinals are totally ordered, and $\kappa_1+\kappa_2=\max\{\kappa_1,\kappa_2\}$ for infinite cardinals, so this is trivial. But I worry that things might go wrong when choice is not present.
No, of course not.
Suppose that $A$ is an infinite Dedekind-finite set and let $B=A\cup\{A\}$, then $|A|<|B|$. Now, let $C=\omega$, then $|A|+\aleph_0=|A|+(1+\aleph_0)=(|A|+1|)+\aleph_0=|B|+\aleph_0$.
Since $A\cup\omega$ contains a Dedekind-finite subset, it must be greater in cardinality than $\aleph_0$, so your condition is satisfied.
More generally, this would be equivalent to the axiom of choice. To see that, let $U$ be any set which cannot be well-ordered and let $\kappa$ be $\aleph(U)$, the Hartogs number of $U$.
Then consider $A=U+\kappa$ and $B=U+\kappa^+$, and let $C=\kappa^{++}$, the argument goes as in the above case. Then the only way that we fail the required condition is that $|C|\nless|A|+|C|=|B|+|C|$, in which case $A$ can be well-ordered.