When dividing binomial coefficients by $3$, why is remainder $1$ much more common than remainder $2$?

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I was contemplating the nature of binomial coefficients, and came up with the following question.

Consider the binomial coefficients $\binom{n}{r}$ where $1<r<n-1$, arranged in increasing order, with duplicates removed:

$6,10,15,20,21,28,35,36,45,55,56,\dots$ (A006987)

Now consider the remainder when each term is divided by $3$.

$0,1,0,2,0,1,2,0,0,1,2,\dots$

Using Excel, I found that, for the first $10000$ terms:

  • remainder $0$ occurs $6453$ times
  • remainder $\color{red}{1}$ occurs $\color{red}{3276}$ times
  • remainder $\color{red}{2}$ occurs $\color{red}{271}$ times

I understand why remainder $0$ occurs most frequently: for large $\binom{n}{r}=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}$, the numerator usually contains a higher power of $3$ than the denominator.

But why does remainder $1$ occur so much more frequently than remainder $2$?