It is proven that for any a set of $n+1$ points, there exists a unique polynomial of degree at most $n$ that satisfies the points.
When is it the case that for a set of $n+1$ points, the unique polynomial that satisfies the points has exactly degree n?
We can come up with the polynomial: $f(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^nf(a_i)\displaystyle\prod_{j\neq i}\frac{x-a_j}{a_i-a_j}$.
The leading coefficient must not be $0$ in order for it to have degree $n$ exactly; but the leading coefficient is $\displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^n\frac{f(a_i)}{\displaystyle\prod_{j\neq i}(a_i-a_j)}$. So we require that this is nonzero.
For example, if $a_i=i$ for i between $0$ and $n$, then $\displaystyle\prod_{j\neq i}(a_i-a_j)=i!(n-i)!(-1)^i$, so multiplying by $n!$, we see that such a polynomial is degree $n$ If and only if $f(0)-\binom{n}{1}f(1)+\binom{n}{2}f(2)-\ldots+(-1)^nf(n)\neq0$.