Suppose you have a group isomorphism given by the first isomorphism theorem:
$$G/\ker(\phi) \simeq \operatorname{im}(\phi)$$
What can we say about the group $\ker(\phi)\times \operatorname{im}(\phi)$? In particular, when does the following hold:
$$G\simeq \ker(\phi)\times \operatorname{im}(\phi)?$$
I ask this question because i want to prove that $GL_n^+(\mathbb{R}) \simeq SL_n(\mathbb{R}) \times \mathbb{R}^*_{>0}$, with $GL_n^+(\mathbb{R})$ the group of matrices with positive determinant. I proved that $SL_n(\mathbb{R})$ is a normal subgroup and that $GL_n^+(\mathbb{R})/ SL_n(\mathbb{R}) \simeq \mathbb{R}^*_{>0}$, using the surjective homomorphism $\det(M)$. I tried something with semidirect products but I got stuck.
Let $N = ker(\phi)$ and $K = im(\phi)$, then you're asking when, given an exact sequence $1 \to N \to G \to K \to 1$ is trivial.
I don't include proofs here, as they're found in any basic group theory notes.
In fact you can get away with the first condition. Indeed, if there exists a map $p : G \to N$ which is the identity on $N$, then a section of $\phi$ automatically exists and the isomorphism $G \cong \operatorname{im}(\phi) \times \operatorname{ker}(\phi) = K \times N$ holds. The required isomorphism is $(\phi, p) : G \to K \times N$ (it's not hard to check that this is in fact an isomorphism).