Given that $\det(AB)=\det(A)\det(B)$ and $\det(A^T)=\det(A)$ then why is it not always the case that:
$\det(A^TA)=\det(AA^T)$
$\det(A^T)\det(A)=\det(A)\det(A^T)$
$\det(A)\det(A)=\det(A)\det(A)$
$(\det(A))^2=(\det(A))^2$ for any matrix A?
2026-04-06 00:46:43.1775436403
When is $\det(AA^T) \neq \det(A^TA)?$
95 Views Asked by user144250 https://math.techqa.club/user/user144250/detail AtRelated Questions in LINEAR-ALGEBRA
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