Given the following matrix $$A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1\\ bk+b & -bk\end{bmatrix}$$ where $b \neq 0$ and $k \neq 0$, find when the given matrix is not diagonizable.
My initial thought would be when the matrix doesn't have $2$ linearly independent eigenvectors. In this case it would be when the eigenvalue has a multiplicity of 2. I.e. $\lambda_1=\lambda_2 $.
I find the eigenvalues:
$ \lambda_1=\frac{-bk+\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)}}{2}\\ \lambda_2=\frac{-bk-\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)}}{2} $
I then let them equal each other:
$ (1)\qquad\frac{-bk+\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)}}{2}=\frac{-bk-\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)}}{2}\\ \quad\\ \quad\\ (2)\qquad\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)}=-\sqrt{(bk)^2-4\cdot(-bk-b)} $
Here my initial thought would be that the only case this is true if the term under the square root is equal zero.
$ b^2k^2+4bk+4b=0\\ b(bk^2+4k+4)=0 $
Since $b\neq0$ I need the term inside the parantheses to be equal 0.
$ bk^2+4k+4=0 $
I'm a bit lost from here.
I know the solution is $ -bk-k=(\frac{-bk}{2})^2 $.
The solution was provided by someone else here on Stack Exchange, he used the determinant and the trace of the matrix to come to that conclusion, which I can't seem to replicate.
We have that
$Tr(A)=\lambda_1+\lambda_2=-bk$
$\det(A)=\lambda_1\lambda_2=-(bk+b)$
and $\lambda_1=\lambda_2=\lambda$ implies
$\lambda=-\frac{bk}2$
$\lambda^2=-(bk+b)$
and therefore $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ when
$$\left(-\frac{bk}2\right)^2=-(bk+b)$$
Finally recall that for $\lambda_1\neq \lambda_2$ $A$ is diagonalizable but for $\lambda_1=\lambda_2$ we need to check directly whether or not $A$ is diagonalizable.