It is known that two free $\Bbb{Z}$-modules $\bigoplus_{I}\Bbb{Z}$ and $\bigoplus_{J}\Bbb{Z}$ are isomorphic if and only if $|I|=|J|$. Moreover, it is true for any two free module over a commutative ring $R$. Now, a natural question in this context is "if we replace the direct sum $\bigoplus$ with the direct product $\prod$ is the ruling still true?"
Thus, I have the following quation on infinite direct product of $\Bbb{Z}$ as $\Bbb{Z}$-module.
Question. Suppose that $I$ and $J$ are two (non-measurable) infinite cardinals, such that $|\prod_I\Bbb{Z}|=|\prod_J\Bbb{Z}|$. Can we conclude that $\prod_I\Bbb{Z}\cong \prod_J\Bbb{Z}$ as $\Bbb{Z}$-modules?
The cardinality claim is just saying that $2^{|I|} = 2^{|J|}$. If we assume, for instance, the generalized continuum hypothesis, then the map $\kappa \mapsto 2^\kappa$ is injective, so we can conclude that $|I| = |J|$, from which the isomorphism of modules easily follows. I don’t know whether we can solve this problem without making such an assumption.
Edit: in Mahmood Behboodi’s answer below, he cites the literature saying that this isomorphism occurs if and only if $|I| = |J|$. With this piece of information, I can now say the problem is independent of ZFC. For suppose we have ZFC + Martin’s Axiom + $\neg$ the continuum hypothesis. Then we have $2^{\aleph_0} = 2^{\aleph_1}$, but $\aleph_0 \neq \aleph_1$ (and both cardinals, not being inaccessible, are also not measurable).