In his book on Grothendieck Duality, Lipman uses Tor-independence as a condition for base change.
Recall that a square of spaces (in Lipmans book qs schemes) $\require{AMScd}$ \begin{CD} A @>F>> B\\ @V G V V @VV g V\\ C @>>f> D \end{CD} is called tor-independent if it is cartesian and for $b,c,d$ with $g(b)=f(c)=d$ it is $$ Tor_p^{\mathcal{O}_{D,d}}(\mathcal{O}_{C,c},\mathcal{O}_{B,b})=0 $$ for all $p>0$.
I do not have a good overview over the literature, but older sources, e.g. for topological spaces Spaltenstein, instead simply assume $g$ to be flat (which clearly implies tor-independence).
My question is, when people started using the slightly more general condition.