Consider the following series,
$$1+\frac{1+2}{2!}+\frac{1+2+3}{3!}+\cdots$$
My Efforts
The series can be written in compact for as,
$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n(n+1)\over 2n!}$$
$$={1\over 2}(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n^2\over n!}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n \over n!})$$ $$={1\over 2}(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n^2\over n!}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{1 \over (n-1)!})$$
Now $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{1 \over (n-1)!}=1+1+{1\over 2!}+{1\over 3!}+\cdots=e$$ First summand can be simplified as, $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n \over (n-1)!}$$
But where does it converge? Any hints?
Edit: Thank you for all the quick replies. I now realize it was so easy. I just had to use $n=n-1+1$.
Hint:
$$ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n \over (n-1)!} = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{n - 1 + 1 \over (n-1)!} $$
$$ = \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}{1 \over (n-2)!} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}{ 1 \over (n-1)!} $$