I'm a maths student taking a real-analysis paper and I'm currently working down my problem sheet. I've been asked the above question.
First I define a piece-wise function to describe the absolute function above.
$$f(x)= \begin{cases} x^2(x+1) & x \geq -1 \\ -(x^2)(x+1) & x < -1 \\ \end{cases} $$
$$f(x)= \begin{cases} x^3+x^2 & x \geq -1 \\ -x^3-x^2 & x < -1 \\ \end{cases} $$ My guess is that since both pieces are polynomials that $f(x)$ is smooth and thus the infinity differentiable everywhere.
I'm still wrapping my head around all this $C^1$ and $C^2$, smoothness, etc. So if anyone has any tips or tricks I'd love to know!
Thanks for your time!
The function $f$ is not differentiable at $-1$, since$$\lim_{x\to-1^+}\frac{f(x)-f(-1)}{x+1}=5$$and$$\lim_{x\to-1^-}\frac{f(x)-f(-1)}{x+1}=-5;$$therefore the limit $\lim_{x\to-1}\frac{f(x)-f(-1)}{x+1}$ doesn't exist. But $f$ is differentiable at every point $a\ne-1$ since: