On the problem below, I am unsure why my answer was wrong.
Arithmetic sequences $\left(a_n\right)$ and $\left(b_n\right)$ have integer terms with $a_1=b_1=1<a_2 \le b_2$ and $a_n b_n = 2010$ for some $n$. What is the largest possible value of $n$?
$$ \mathbf{A)} \ \ \ 2 \quad \quad \mathbf{B)} \ \ \ 3 \quad \quad\mathbf{C)} \ \ \ 8 \quad \quad \mathbf{D)} \ \ \ 288 \quad \quad \mathbf{E)} \ \ \ 2009 $$
My answer was 2009. The 2 sequences I thought of were $a_1 = 1$ and the difference is 0, as well as $b_1 = 1$ and the difference being 1 all the way up to 2010, which is 2009. Where is the flaw in my logic? I googled if arithmetic sequences could have a common difference of 0 and it said yes.
The assumption is that the increments are positive integers. So we have $$[a_1+(n-1)k][b_1+(n-1)\ell] = 2010, $$ where $k,\ell$ are the increments of $(a_n)$ and $(b_n)$ respectively. It follows that $n-1\mid 2009 = 7^2 \cdot 41$ Obviously, $n=288$ is out of the question. For $n=50$ and $n=42$, one of the increments must be zero. For $n=8$, $k=2$ and $\ell=19$ is suitable, so (C) $n=8$ is correct.
For $n=50$, from $$(1+49k)(1+49\ell) = 2010 \Leftrightarrow (49k+1)\ell = 41-k $$ it immediately follows that $k=0$.
For $n=42$, $$(1+41k)(1+41\ell) = 2010 \Leftrightarrow (41k+1)\ell = 49-k $$ it is again clear that $k=0$ is forced.
For $n=8$, given that $$ (1+7k)(1+7\ell) = 2010 \Leftrightarrow (7k+1)\ell = 287-k $$ one can find appropriate $k,\ell$ with small effort.