If $(x_n)$ is a sequence of real numbers such that for every $n$ we have $0<x_n<\frac{1}{n}$ then which of the following is true?
$1.\lim_{n\to\infty}x_n=0$
$2.$If $f$ is continuous function from $\\(0,1)$ then $\\(f(x_n))$ is a cauchy sequence.
$3.$If $g$ is uniformly continuous function on $(0,1)$ then $g(x_n)$ is convergent.
First we can prove by squeeze theorem and for second option we have counter example $\\A=(0,1/n),f(x)=\frac{1}{x},x_n=1-\frac{1}{2n}$
About other options I have no idea.