I have to find which of the following formulas is valid , and if it is not valid, give a model to show it.
$\forall u(P(u)\rightarrow R(u))\rightarrow(\forall uP(u)\rightarrow \forall uR(u))$
$(\forall uP(u)\rightarrow \forall uR(u))\rightarrow\forall u(P(u)\rightarrow R(u))$
I don't know how to start...
Hint
To show that:
is not valid we have to manufacture a counterexample.
Consider the domain $\mathbb N$ of natural numbers and interpret $P(x)$ as $(x=0)$ and $R(x)$ as $(x > 0)$.
We have that $\forall u \ (u=0)$ is false in $\mathbb N$; thus, the conditional: $∀u \ (u=0) → ∀u \ (u>0)$ is true in $\mathbb N$.
But: $(u=0) → (u>0)$ is false for $0$ as value for $u$; thus $\forall u \ ((u=0) → (u>0))$ is false in $\mathbb N$.
In conclusion, the formula: $(∀uP(u)→∀uR(u))→∀u(P(u)→R(u))$ is false in $\mathbb N$ and thus it is not valid.