Answers obtained from two online integral calculators:
$$\begin{align}\int\dfrac{\sqrt{1 + x}}{\sqrt{1 - x}}\,\mathrm dx &= -\sqrt{\dfrac{x + 1}{1 - x}} + \sqrt{\dfrac{x + 1}{1 - x}}x - 2\arcsin\left(\dfrac1{\sqrt2}\sqrt{1 - x}\right) + C \\ \int\dfrac{\sqrt{1 + x}}{\sqrt{1 - x}}\,\mathrm dx &= 2\sin^{-1}\left(\dfrac{\sqrt{x + 1}}{\sqrt2}\right) - \sqrt{1 - x^2} + \text{ constant} \end{align}$$
Answers from online calculator shown above, and my answers shown in the link:

Update:
I realized that the substitution for $\theta$ was supposed to be $\arcsin$ not $\arccos$, so the answer would have been the same as the right hand side.
But I also noticed that using the initial substitution to plug $x$ back in the final answer will not always give the correct answer because in a similar question:
$$\int \frac{\sqrt{x^2-1}}x dx$$
has a trig-substitution of $x = \sec\theta$, and the answer in terms of $\theta$ would be: $\tan \theta - \theta + C$. Then the final answer in terms of $x$ should be : $\sqrt{x^2-1} - \operatorname{arcsec}(x) + C$.
But online integral calculators give the answer: $\sqrt{x^2-1} - \arctan(\sqrt{x^2-1}) + C$, which doesn't match the original substitution of:
$$x = \sec\theta \to \theta = \operatorname{arcsec}(x)$$
Anyone know why the calculator gives that answer which doesn't match the original trig-substitution of $x = \sec \theta \to \theta = \operatorname{arcsec}(x)$?
Since you've already understood the first part, I'll address your second question.
Starting off with $\displaystyle\int \frac{\sqrt{x^2-1}}{x}\mathrm dx$, substitute $x = \sec(\theta)$ for $\theta \in \left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \cup \left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \pi\right]$ as usual (keep the domain in mind for later). Of course, that means $\sqrt{x^2-1} = \sqrt{\sec^2(\theta)-1} = \sqrt{\tan^2(\theta)} = \vert \tan(\theta)\vert$ and $\dfrac{\mathrm dx}{\mathrm d\theta} = \sec(\theta)\tan(\theta) \iff \mathrm dx = \sec(\theta)\tan(\theta)\mathrm d\theta$. This simplifies as follows:
$$\displaystyle\int \frac{\sqrt{x^2-1}}{x}\mathrm dx \longrightarrow \int\frac{\vert \tan(\theta)\vert}{\sec(\theta)}\sec(\theta)\tan(\theta)\mathrm d\theta = \int\vert \tan(\theta)\vert\tan(\theta)\mathrm d\theta$$
For $\theta \in \left[0, \frac{\pi}{2}\right)$, $\tan(\theta) \geq 0$, so you get
$$\int \tan^2(\theta) \mathrm d\theta = \int \left[\sec^2(\theta)-1\right] \mathrm d\theta = \tan(\theta)-\theta+C \longrightarrow \sqrt{x^2-1}-\text{arcsec}(x)+C$$
Since tangent is positive in the first quadrant, $\tan(\theta) = \sqrt{x^2-1}$, so the $\theta$ term can also be replaced with $\arctan\left(\sqrt{x^2-1}\right)$.
For $\theta \in \left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \pi\right]$, $\tan(\theta) \leq 0$, so you get
$$-\int \tan^2(\theta) \mathrm d\theta = -\int \left[\sec^2(\theta)-1\right] \mathrm d\theta = \theta-\tan(\theta)+C \longrightarrow \sqrt{x^2-1}+\text{arcsec}(x)+C$$
Since tangent is negative in the second quadrant, $\tan(\theta) = \tan(\theta -\pi) = -\sqrt{x^2-1}$ (remember that tangent takes arguments in the first and fourth quadrants), so the $\theta$ term can also be replaced with $\pi-\arctan\left(\sqrt{x^2-1}\right)$.
In both cases, the anti-derivative could be re-written as $\sqrt{x^2-1}-\arctan\left(\sqrt{x^2-1}\right)+C$. Basically, it just "combines" your other two anti-derivatives and expresses them as a single function rather than having one for each case.