It says here that "By the classification of cyclic groups, there is only one group of each order[prime] (up to isomorphism)".
What is the intuition behind this and how would you go about proving this? An proof would be greatly appreciated.
It says here that "By the classification of cyclic groups, there is only one group of each order[prime] (up to isomorphism)".
What is the intuition behind this and how would you go about proving this? An proof would be greatly appreciated.
Let $n\in \Bbb N$ and $A,B$ two finite cyclic groups, both of order $n$ (not necessarily prime). Then by definition of "cyclic" $A=\langle a\rangle$, $B=\langle b\rangle$ for some generartors $a,b$. Verify that $a^k\mapsto b^k$ defines a homomorphism $A\to B$ that is in fact an isomorphism.
Upon deeper reading, the statement made in the linked text is intended to mean something else (and relies on a different proof than the classification of cyclic groups!):
This follows from Lagrange's theorem because for any $g\in G$ with $g\ne 1$, the group $\langle g\rangle$ must have order $>1$ and dividing $p$, hence $G=\langle g\rangle$ is cyclic.