Consider the eigenvalue problem $\Delta u + \lambda u = 0$ on some bounded domain $\Omega \subset \Bbb R^d$ with smooth boundary, with Dirichlet data $u|_{\partial\Omega} =0$. It is known that solutions $u$ are real-analytic inside $\Omega$.
This is supposed to be a simple fact, but I couldn't find a reference/proof that shows this (that I could understand). I only found references for more advanced stuff, like quasilinear equations with non-analytic coefficients, etc... Anyway, most references I've read try to generalize, which makes it harder to read - I'm not interested in a more general case.
Why is $u$ real-analytic? Does it follow from the Cauchy-Kowalewsky theorem (and if so, how)? Is there a simple proof of this (only for the above PDE, not in general)?
The statement really is: if $f$ is a distribution on an open subset $\Omega$ of $\mathbb R^n$ and $\Delta f=\lambda f$ then $f$ is real analytic. To prove it:
1: find a distribution $G$ on $\mathbb R^n$ such that $(\Delta-\lambda)G=\delta$. This can be done explicitly via Fourier transform, and the result is a real-analytic function except at $0\in\mathbb R^n$.
2: for any $x\in\Omega$ take a compactly-supported smooth function $\psi$ on $\Omega$ which is equal to $1$ in a neighbourhood of $x$. Let $g=(\Delta-\lambda)(\psi f)$. We have $g=0$ on the open subset where $\psi$ is locally constant. As $g$ has compact support, $\psi f=G\ast g$.
3: as $G$ is real analytic except at $0$, or equivalently, $G$ is holomorphic in a small neighbourhood of $\mathbb R^n-\{0\}$ in $\mathbb C^n-\{0\}$, the convolution $G\ast g$ is real analytic in the complement of the support of $g$, as there $(G\ast g)(x)=\langle g(y),G(x-y)\rangle$, we can allow $x$ to be complex and differentiate w.r.t. $x$.