I am currently learning group theory and I learnt that the fundamental representation and the anti-fundamental representation of $\text{SL}(2,\mathbb{C})$, $2 \times 2$ matrix with determinant of $1$, are not equivalent. This means that no similarity transformation can map one of them to the other.
My professor gave an explanation (on the 2nd last paragraph on page 75 of the following document http://www-pnp.physics.ox.ac.uk/~tseng/teaching/b2/b2-lectures-2018.pdf) but I don't see how the difference in the signs in the exponent imply that the representations are inequivalent.
Can anyone please explain the explanation of my professor, or perhaps give another explanation?
For $$G~:=~SL(2,\mathbb{C})~:=~\{g\in {\rm Mat}_{2\times 2}(\mathbb{C})\mid \det g = 1 \}\tag{1}$$ viewed as a complex Lie group, the finite dimensional linear representations should by definition be complex manifolds, which rule out complex conjugate representations in the first place, cf. e.g. this Math.SE post. In physics texts (like the one OP is linking to) the irreducible representations are labelled by an half integer $j\in \frac{1}{2}\mathbb{N}_0,$ and of complex dimension $2j+1$.
For the same group $$G~:=~SL(2,\mathbb{C})~\cong~ Spin(1,3,\mathbb{R})\tag{2}$$ viewed as a real Lie group, it is not hard to see that the complex conjugate representation $$\rho: G\to GL(2,\mathbb{C}), \qquad \rho(g)~=~\bar{g}, \qquad g~\in~ G, \tag{3}$$ of the defining representation (1) is not equivalent, i.e. there does not exist an element $M\in GL(2,\mathbb{C})$ such that $$\forall g\in G: Mg=\bar{g}M. \tag{4}$$
One complexification of $G$ is $$G_{\mathbb{C}}~\cong~Spin(1,3,\mathbb{C})\cong SL(2,\mathbb{C})\times SL(2,\mathbb{C}).$$ In the physics literature the irreducible representations are typically labelled by a pair of half integers $j_L,j_R\in \frac{1}{2}\mathbb{N}_0$, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post. The inequivalent left and right Weyl spinor representations (which OP's link mentions) are labelled $(1/2,0)$ and $(0,1/2)$, respectively.