I am studying a lesson called "Multivariate Statistics". In class, a question is raised, and I cannot solve it. The question is described below:
There are two random variables: $X$ and $Y$, $Y=|X|$. $X$ obeys the standard normal distribution $\mathcal N(0,1)$.
Question: Why are $X$ and $Y$ uncorrelated?
My thought is:
- To demonstrate this proposition, I should prove that the covariance between $X$ and $Y$ is 0, i.e. $\text{Cov}(X,Y)=0$.
- Because $\text{Cov}(X,Y)=E[[X-E[X]][Y-EY]]$ and $E[X]=0$, $\text{Cov}(X,Y)=E[XY-X\cdot E[Y]]=E[XY]-E[X\cdot E[Y]]=E[XY]-E[X]E[Y]=E[XY]$. Then I should prove that $E[XY]=0$.
- Denote the probability density function of $XY$ as $f(x,y)$, then $$E[XY]=\iint xyf(x,y)\,dx\,dy$$ But I cannot figure it out. What should I do?
I agree that the goal is to prove $\mathbb{E}[X\cdot|X|]=0$ and I also think that a reasonable way of doing so is to look at the corresponding integral.
However, you do not need the density function of $X\cdot |X|$, but only the "law of the unconscious statistician": Let $f$ be the density function of $\mathcal{N}(0,1)$. Then
\begin{align}\mathbb{E}[X\cdot |X|]&=\int_{\mathbb{R}}x\cdot |x|f(x)~\mathrm{d}x\\ &=-\int_{-\infty}^0 x^2f(x)~\mathrm{d}x+\int_{0}^{\infty} x^2f(x)~\mathrm{d}x\\ &=-\int_{0}^\infty x^2f(x)~\mathrm{d}x+\int_{0}^{\infty} x^2f(x)~\mathrm{d}x\\ &=0,\\ ~\end{align}
since the function $x^2f(x)$ is symmetric. You see that the symmetry is the only property of the Gaussian distribution we need here (apart from existence requirements).