Why is it that no prime number can appear as the length of a hypotenuse in more than one Pythagorean triangle? In other words, could any of you give me a algebraic proof for the following?
Given prime number $p$, and Pythagorean triples $(a,b,p)$ and $(c,d,p)$ where $a<b<p$ and $c<d<p$, then $b=d$.
Please also have a look at the deeper question: Is there any formula to calculate the number of different Pythagorean triangle with a hypotenuse length $n$, using its prime decomposition?
This goes back to Euler, who showed that if there are two ways of writing an odd integer $N$ as the sum of two squares, then $N$ is composite. There is a 2009 article on this by Brillhart. Let me try to find a link.
http://www.maa.org/press/periodicals/american-mathematical-monthly/american-mathematical-monthly-december-2009
And if one note that in a primitive triple the hypotenuse is of the form $(u^2+v^2)$, and the legs are of the form $(u^2-v^2)$ and $(2uv)$. So by euler if the hypotenuse is prime it couldn't be written in different ways.