Why do integrals work if you are summing things with zero area?

79 Views Asked by At

So I am a normal second year math student in who is currently taking probability theory. One of the things we learned is that if you have a continuous probability densities $f(x)$, then $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x)dx = 1$. We also learned that $P(X = x) = 0$ as well. So it means that the probability of something happening is 100%, but the probability of one specific thing is 0%. This is pretty mind blowing for me, but it brought me back to Calculus 1 where we defined integrals as the limit of a Riemann Sum (which made sense from a proof standpoint).

However now I seem to have trouble fundamentally grasping how an infinite sum of objects with zero area could have a value. I know that we are taking the limit, not the actual, but does that mean that if we ever reached 0 it would instantly disconnect and drop off to zero?

Thank you for any help!

1

There are 1 best solutions below

0
On BEST ANSWER

You are summing "infinitely many" things with zero area, so that infinity and zero "compensate" each other.

Things become clearer when you think of a decomposition of $f$ in contiguous rectangles, thus approximating $f$ in a piecewise constant manner. When you shrink the rectangle width, their number increases, for an approximately constant sum.