So in virtually all English-language calculus classes I have seen, we define integration as the "accumulation of change". And that makes sense to me intuitively, but when I think about it, I feel like accumulation of value makes more sense. Because if we take the change in a function $f:\mathbb{R}\mapsto\mathbb{R}\text{ s.t. } f(x)=k$ for $k\in\mathbb{R}$, then the "change" in $f$ at any $x$ is $0$. So accumulating it, we add $0$ with itself some number of times, right? Which will always be $0$. Yet, $$\int_a^b k\, dx$$ isn't always equal to zero...
I feel like accumulation of change makes sense to me but I can't put my finger on why it does. Can anyone try to explain?
The thing that you're integrating is the change that's being accumulated. When you want to calculate the cumulative change of $f(x)=k$, you integrate its rate of change, which you correctly identified as 0. So you should expect $f(b)-f(a)=\int_a^b 0\mathrm dx$, which is true.
When you integrate $f$ itself, you view $f$ as the rate of change of a different function $F$, and you expect $F(b)-F(a)=\int_a^b f(x)\mathrm dx$.