In finite dimensional linear algebra if we have $A x = 0$, and $\ker(A) = 0$, then $A$ is invertible. But it seems having a trivial kernel is not a sufficient condition for invertibility when dealing with infinite dimensional operators. Consider the following theorem:
Theorem
Let $S_D: L^2(\partial D) \to W_1^2(\partial D)$ be the single layer potential for the Laplacian in $\mathbb{R}^3$ where $D$ is a bounded Lipschitz domain in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Let $\phi \in L^2(\partial D)$ satisfy $$S_D[\phi] = 0 \quad \text{on} \quad \partial D.$$ It can be shown then that $\phi = 0$. Now we want to prove that $S_D$ has a bounded inverse.
Proof
As $W_1^2(\partial D) \hookrightarrow{} L^2(\partial D)$ is compact, and $S_D$ maps $L^2(\partial D)$ into $W_1^2(\partial D)$ boundedly, we have that $S_D$ is Fredholm with index zero. And as we have that $\ker(S_D) = \{0\}$, this means that $S_D$ has a bounded inverse.
Question
Unlike in a finite dimensional matrix problem, in this case having a trivial kernel $\ker(S_D) = \{0\}$ was not enough to show that $S_D$ is invertible. We also needed to show that $S_D$ is Fredholm with index zero. Why is this? I am not very experienced with Fredholm theory. I know that being Fredholm of index zero means that an operator has
- finite dimensional kernel
- finite dimensional cokernel
- closed range
- $\dim(\ker) - \dim(\text{coker}) = 0$ (for the index zero property)
So why do we need these extra properties when dealing with the invertibility of an infinite dimensional operator as opposed to a finite dimensional matrix?
Consider the right-shift in $\ell^2$, i.e., the operator $R$ which maps $$(x_1, x_2, x_3, x_4, \ldots) \mapsto (0, x_1, x_2, x_3).$$ Then, it is easy to see that this operator is Fredholm, but has index $\pm 1$ (I am not sure about the sign in the definition of the index).
The left-shift has similar properties: it has finite-dimensional kernel and co-kernel, closed range and is surjective. In finite dimensions, this is enough to guarantee the invertibility.