I don't understand why the mapping lemma states that |A| = |B| IFF A bij B.
My understanding of the above lemma is
If A bij B is True then |A| = |B| is True
If A bij B is False then |A| = |B| is False
If |A| = |B| is True then A bij B is True
If |A| = |B| is False then A bij B is False
My understanding is most likely incorrect so please correct my understanding of the mapping lemma:
This mapping lemma is invalid by providing this counter example. A = {1,2,3}. B = {4,5,6}. There is no relation between set A and B.
With this example, |A| = |B| is True since 3 = 3. However A bij B is False since there is no relation between them. This means that in this counter example, (|A| = |B| IFF A bij B) = (T IFF F) = F
I am almost certain my understanding and counter example are wrong but can someone kindly point out where I made a mistake in my understanding and example? Thank you.
Based on your comment under Kenny Lau's answer, I think the problem is the following: that you are assuming that a bijection between two sets needs to be "meaningful" in some way. This is not the case: bijections don't need to follow some pattern, they're allowed to be completely arbitrary.
Indeed, the existence of a bijection between two sets is usually how "having the same cardinality" is defined; really what we're doing here is arguing that this formal definition matches our usual intuitions about cardinality.
There is a philosophical point here - to what extent can mathematical objects "exist" without being "definable" - but it's not really relevant here: two sets have the same cardinality iff there is a bijection between them, regardless of what "is" means. Perhaps two different notions of mathematical existence could disagree about whether a bijection exists between two particular sets, but both notions will separately agree that "equicardinality = bijection."