By the "volume" of "parallelepiped", I mean the Lebesgue measure of n-Parallelotope.
If I have $$\vec{v_i}=\begin{bmatrix}a_{1i} \\ a_{2i} \\ \vdots \\ a_{ni}\end{bmatrix} \qquad \text{ for } i\in\{1,2,3\ldots,n\}$$ and $$\mathbf A=\begin{bmatrix}\vec{v_1} & \vec{v_2} & \cdots & \vec{v_n}\end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}a_{11} & a_{12} & \cdots & a_{1n}\\ a_{21} & a_{22} & \cdots & a_{2n}\\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots & \vdots \\ a_{n1} & a_{n2} & \cdots & a_{nn}\end{bmatrix}$$ Now there are two ways to define the determinant.
Definition 1: If $\mathbf C_{ij}$ is the cofactor, then $$\det(\mathbf A)=\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_{ik}C_{ik}=\sum_{k=1}^{n}a_{kj}C_{kj} \qquad \text{for any } i,j\in\{1,2,3,\ldots,n\}$$ Definition 2: $\det(\mathbf A)$ is the Lebesgue measure of the fundamental n-Parallelotope spanned by the the column vectors $\vec{v_i}\in\mathbb R^n$.
How do I prove that the two definitions are equivalent? I personally like definition 2 because, I can visualize it but in definition 1, first we need to show that the summations are giving same values for all i and j.
I can use the second definition definition for n=2, first thing I noted was that column operations does not change the area of the parallelogram because of simple geometry properties. Thus, $$\begin{vmatrix}a & c\\ b & d\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}a & c-a\frac{c}{a}\\ b & d-b\frac{c}{a}\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}a & 0\\ b & \frac{ad-bc}{a}\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}a-0\frac{ab}{ad-bc} & 0\\ b-\frac{ad-bc}{a}\frac{ab}{ad-bc} & \frac{ad-bc}{a}\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}a & 0\\ 0 & \frac{ad-bc}{a}\end{vmatrix}$$ This turns it into a rectangle whose area can be calculated easily. $$\begin{vmatrix}a & c\\ b & d\end{vmatrix}=ad-bc$$ But this is the same as we get from definition 1. Thus both definitions are equivalent for n=2.
The argument in finding determinant for n=2 by the second definition generalizes easily, but the method of computation feels completely different as compared to definition 1. Like for n=3, I got $$\begin{vmatrix}a&d&g\\b&e&h\\c&f&i\end{vmatrix}=\begin{vmatrix}\frac{a(ei-hf)-d(bi-ch)-g(ec-bf)}{ei-hf}&0&0\\0&\frac{ei-hf}{i}&0\\0&0&i\end{vmatrix}=a(ei-hf)-d(bi-ch)+g(bf-ec)$$ I can see a little bit connection for $i=1$ in definition 1.
I got to know that definition 1 is called Laplace Expansion, but the proof written on Wikipedia went above my tiny brain. I am in 11th grade and I know very little about Linear algebra(I know only the stuff Grant Sanderson told in his essence of LA playlist). After reading the answer Determinant of transpose I can make sense why row operations do not change the determinant as well. I would be really happy if someone proves definition 1 using definition 2.
Proof: The proof is straightforward by induction over the number of dimensions. It is obviously true for $m=1$. Assume it's true for $m$, and consider an $(m+1)$-dimensional parallelepiped, $P$. Let the rows of $A$ be denoted $a_i$, where $i$ runs from $1$ to $m+1$. We can find $b,c\in\mathbb R^{m+1}$ such that $a_1=b+c$, $b$ is orthogonal to the set $S=\{a_2,\ldots, a_m+1\}$, and $c$ falls in $span(S)$. Let $B$ be the matrix formed by replacing row $a_1$ with the vector $b$. As there are elementary matrices $E_1,\cdots E_k$ such that $A=E_1\cdots E_kB$, we have that $det(A^TA)=det(BB^T)$.
Let $C$ be the matrix obtained by removing the first row of $A$. Note that $C$ represents the embedding of an $m$-dimensional parallelepiped in $\mathbb{R}^{m+1}$. Therefore we can apply our inductive hypothesis to it.
Using basic properties of the determinent that follow from your Definition 1, we have: $$\det(AA^T)=\det(BB^T)=\begin{bmatrix} bb^T & bD^T \\ Db^T & DD^T \end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix} bb^T & 0 \\ 0 & DD^T \end{bmatrix}=bb^T\det(DD^T)$$
We can replace the two entries with zero, because $b$ is orthogonal to the rows of $D$ by construction. By induction, $\det(DD^T)$ is the square of the volume of one face of $P$, and by the Pythagorean theorem, $bb^T$ is the square of the length of the perpendicular side. Therefore their product is the square of the volume of the entire parallelepiped, exactly as desired.
I've proven that the two quantities are equal, but that doesn't seem to satiate you. I think this is in part because you're a little confused about the logic of the situation. It's not like you asked me to prove $P\rightarrow Q$ and instead I proved $Q\rightarrow P$. You asked me to prove that $P=Q$ and "instead" I proved $Q=P$. Except equality is symmetric, so this is a non-issue. If you have two quantities and can algebraically manipulate one to obtain the other, then they are equal. It doesn't matter which side you manipulated.
You seem to be interested in the key idea behind how you can see that co-factor expansions work, without fully expanding the whole $m\times m$ matrix. The idea is that you can replace the first row with the component that is perpendicular to the rest of the rows, and then when you expand across the first row you wind up with a formula that is the product of the side length (in the modified dimension) with the volume of the face that that side is perpendicular to. That is, up to elementary matrix equivalents co-factor expansion directly represents the usual way we find volumes of parallelepipeds: calculating the volume of the base and multiplying it by the height.