Can someone please explain how this works and how to apply it to other fractions to get 100%?
I thought it might have something to do with the Dividend in the first Part (In this Example the 3 in $\frac34$) being the divisor in the second part (The $3$ in $1\frac13$) since $\frac56 \times 1\frac{1}{5}$ also equals $1$ but it doesn't really work out with other Fractions like $\frac46$.
Maybe those two examples have by pure coincidence so nicely even and fitting numbers. Any help is appreciated.
We have $$\begin{align} 1\frac{1}{a} &= 1 + \frac{1}{a} \\ &= \frac{a}{a} + \frac{1}{a} \\ &= \frac{a+1}{a}. \end{align}$$
Therefore,
$$\begin{align} \frac{a}{a+1} \times 1\frac{1}{a} &= \frac{a}{a+1} \times \frac{a+1}{a} \\ &= 1, \end{align}$$
provided $a\neq 0$ and $a \ne -1$