Say we a function $u$ and a bounded region $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^2$, such that $(\Delta+\lambda)u = 0$ everywhere, and $u=0$ on the boundary. We extend it to the entire plane by defining $u=0$ everywhere outside of $\Omega$. Wikipedia states that, for the Radon transform, $R\Delta = \partial^2 / \partial s^2 R$, hence we can derive the ODE
$$ \left( \frac{\partial^2}{\partial s^2} + \lambda \right) Ru(\theta,s) = 0,$$
therefore we can reason that
$$ Ru(\theta,s) = a(\theta) e^{i \sqrt{\lambda} s} + b(\theta) e^{-i \sqrt{\lambda} s}.$$
But this is periodic in $s$ with period $2\pi/\sqrt{\lambda}$, which would imply either that the above vanishes everywhere, or that it's possible to integrate $u$ over lines arbitrarily far away from $\Omega$ and still get a positive value, despite $u$ vanishing identically on said line. Contradiction.
So does this mean:
- I can't use $R\Delta = \partial^2 / \partial s^2 R$ for functions that aren't sufficiently smooth, or
- The Radon transform is discontinuous at any line tangent to $\partial \Omega$?
I suggested in a comment that after extending $u$ to the whole plane, you have $(\Delta+\lambda)u=\nu$, where $\nu$ is a distribution supported on $\partial\Omega$. Then the right-hand side of the ODE should be $R\nu$, provided that is well-defined. Since this seems a little skimpy for an answer, let me describe a simpler situation (or at least a situation I am more familiar with) where something analogous happens.
Consider $u(x)=\sin(x)$ on $[0,\pi]$, and $0$ everywhere else on $\mathbb{R}$. Suppose we reason that $(\partial^2 + I)u=0$ everywhere on $\mathbb{R}$, and then take the Fourier transform of both sides. If we use the normalization that defines $$ \widehat{\varphi}(k) = \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{\mathbb{R}} \varphi(x)e^{-ikx}\,dx $$ for every Schwartz function, then we get $(-k^2+1)\widehat{u}(k)=0$. Since $u$ is integrable, $\widehat{u}$ is a continuous function, and so this identity implies that $\widehat{u}=0$ everywhere, which gives $u=0$ everywhere.
The mistake is that we should have used $(\partial^2 + I)u=\delta_0+\delta_\pi$, where $\delta_a$ is the delta function centered at $a$. The derivative of $u$ has a jump discontinuity at $x=0$ of size $1$, so the second derivative gives a unit point mass there, and similarly at $x=\pi$. Now the Fourier transform gives $$ (-k^2 + 1)\widehat{u}(k) = \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}(1 + e^{-i\pi k}), $$ so that $$ \widehat{u}(k) = \frac{1 + e^{-i\pi k}}{\sqrt{2\pi}(1 - k^2)}. $$ Taking limits as $k\to\pm1$, we can readily verify that this function is continuous, as it should be.