Why does $$\lim_{x \to 0}\Big(x^2+x+1\Big)^{\large 1/x} =e \;\;?$$
I only got a brief explanation that basically the equation brings itself to equal e, but I didn't catch the steps involved. I know it involves L'Hopital's rule, but if someone could do a step by step I'd appreciate it.
Hint: Let \begin{align*} y & = (1+x+x^2)^{1/x}\\ \ln y & = \frac{\ln(1+x+x^2)}{x}\\ \lim_{x \to 0}\ln y & = \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\ln(1+x+x^2)}{x}\\ & = \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{\frac{1}{1+x+x^2}(1+2x)}{1} \end{align*} Hope you can take it from here.