Apparently (∀x)(Fx v Gx) is not equivalent to (∀x)Fx v (∀x)Gx, however I seem to be able to prove it syntactically:
(∀x)(Fx v Gx) ⊬ (∀x)Fx v (∀x)Gx
(1) (∀x)(Fx V Gx)-----premise
(2) Fa v Ga------------1 UE
(3) Fa------------------2 A for v-E
(4) (x)Fx---------------3 UI
(5) (x)Fx v (x)Gx------4 vI
(6) Ga------------------2 A for v-E
(7) (x)Gx---------------6 UI
(8) (x)Fx v (x)Gx------7 vI
(9) (x)Fx v (x)Gx------2,3,5,6,8 v-E
What am I doing wrong? (Please excuse my poor formatting)
Line 4. It is only valid to use Universal Introduction to discarge an arbitrary free variable. The variable $a$ is not arbitrary within the subproof raised by assuming $Fa$ (you have made an assumption about it), so that subproof cannot be discharged by universal introduction.
$\def\fitch#1#2{\quad\begin{array}{|l}#1\\\hline #2\end{array}}\fitch{1.~\forall x~(Fx\lor Gx)}{\fitch{1.1.~[a]~\qquad\gets{\text{declare $a$ to be a new free variable}\\\text{sometimes this step is not explicitly made}}}{2.~Fa\lor Ga \quad\text{UE: instantiate the universal, since $a$ is arbitrary }\\\fitch{3.~Fa\qquad\text{Assumption: may only be true for certain instances}}{}\\\require{cancel}\cancel{4.~\forall x~Fx}\quad\gets\text{cannot use UI here; unable to generalise when not generally true}\\\vdots}\\\qquad\qquad\gets\text{UI may be used here to discharge free variable $a$}}$