It seems that $n^2 \equiv 10 \pmod{30} \iff n \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$. I found this by calculating $\{n \in \mathbb N_0 \mid n < 30 \land n^2 \equiv 10 \pmod{30}\} = \{10, 20\}$, and noting that 10 divides both of the numbers in the resulting set.
Can this be proven without testing all integers modulu n or can it even be generalized? (Or, if is this all not even true: Where is my mistake?)
A bit of context: This question arose while solving Project Euler Problem #146. Since the numbers $n^2+1$, $n^2+3$, $n^2+7$, $n^2+9$ and $n^2+13$ which must be prime for $n$ to be considered further, form a prime quadruplet, there must be a $k$ such that $n^2+1 = 30k + 11$.
Note: In your title, you ask why $n^2 \equiv 10 \pmod{30}$ implies $n \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$. My answer is a response to that statement. In your question itself there is a different statement, that $n^2 \equiv 10 \pmod{30}$ if and only if $n \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$; this is false, and I assume it is an error.
This is true and can be generalized. In fact, it is a result of two simpler implications $$ n^2 \equiv 10 \pmod{30} \implies n^2 \equiv 0 \pmod{10} \implies n \equiv 0 \pmod{10} $$ The first implication is true because $10 | 30$. The second implication is true because $10$ is squarefree, i.e., it is a product of distinct primes.
More details on the second implication: write $10 = 2 \cdot 5$, so $n^2 \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$ if and only if $n^2$ is a multiple of $2$ and a multiple of $5$. But since $2$ is prime, for $n^2$ to be a multiple of $2$, it must be that $n$ itself contains a factor of $2$. Same for $5$. So $n$ is divisible by $2$ and $5$, hence $n \equiv 0 \pmod{10}$.