Egorov's Theorem: Let $(f_n)$ be a sequence of measurable functions converging pointwise a.e. to a real-valued function f on a measurable set $D$ of finite meausre. Then, given $\epsilon>0$, there is a measurable set $E \subset D$ such that $m(E)<\epsilon$ and such that $(f_n)$ converges uniformly to $f$ on $D$\ $E$.
Can somebody give me an example of where this fails if $m(D)= \infty$?
My book goes on to say that almost uniform convergence always implies a.e. pointwise convergence, can somebody help me to understand why this is true also?
Thanks!
$I_{(n,\infty )} \to 0$ almost everywhere on $(0,\infty )$ with Lebesgue measure. If $f_n \to 0$ uniformly on $E^{c}$ then $E^{c} \subset (0,N]$ for some $N$ which makes $m(E)=\infty $.