Why does the inequality hold?

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Let $u(x,y), x^2+y^2 \leq 1$, a solution of

$$u_{xx}(x,y)+2u_{yy}(x,y)+e^{u(x,y)}=0, x^2+y^2\leq 1$$

Show that $\min_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} u(x,y)= \min_{x^2+y^2=1} u(x,y) $.

We suppose that $\min_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} u(x,y) \neq \min_{x^2+y^2=1} u(x,y) $.

At the solution it is said that since $\{ (x,y) | x^2+y^2 \leq 1\} \supseteq \{ (x,y)| x^2+y^2 =1 \}$ it has to hold that $\min_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} u(x,y)<\min_{x^2+y^2=1} u(x,y)$ .

I haven't understood how we deduce that the above inequality holds. Could you explain it to me?

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If $A\subset B$ and $f\colon A\to\mathbb{R}$, then $$ \inf_{x\in A}f(x)\le\inf_{x\in B}f(x). $$ Strict inequality may not hold.

The inequality $\min_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} u(x,y)<\min_{x^2+y^2=1} u(x,y)$ must be incorrect, since you are asked to prove that $\min_{x^2+y^2 \leq 1} u(x,y)=\min_{x^2+y^2=1} u(x,y)$.